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    Re: Rune Casting Question

    Quote Originally Posted by Hildeburh View Post
    Glad we agree and that you enjoyed the history of rune divination 101 but perhaps in your next reply you could give us some actual evidence that runes were used in divination by the pre Christian Germanic peoples, rather than indulging in “absence of evidence is not evidence of absence.”(ad ignorantiam).
    Why would I attempt to provide evidence for a thing I am not claiming?

    The claim I am making regarding 'absence of evidence is not evidence of absence' is solely that it is not *in and of itself* argumentum ad ignorantiam; all it is in and of itself is a trivially true statement. An absence of evidence is not evidence of anything. It is often used by people who are making an argumentum ad ignorantiam, but it is not itself that fallacy.

    Possibly reread my last reply I didn't say, the Armanen runes had strong ties before 1920 (the year NSDAP, the Nazi Party, was founded - and the year after von List's death). But you did!

    I said " (This system) was based on the younger futhark and futhorc and had strong ties to the völkisch, anti semitic, national socialist (symbolism) of nazi Germany"
    Yes, that's exactly what you said. But, simply because the Nazis took up a thing that pre-existed them, does not make that thing inherently problematic. The Armanen runes were tied to the body of ideas from which Nazism eventually emerged, and that makes them shady from the get-go.

    It can be unplatable to some that runic divination has a past intricately linked to the völkisch ideology of Nazi Germany, but it is what it is. I guess its nicer to assert that it harks back to pre Christian ideas than to truely understand it origin.
    Please point out exactly where I made that assertion. Perhaps you need to reread my post.

    My assertion was simply that it was intricately linked to völkisch ideology well before Nazi Germany was a thing.

    The only thing I have to say about divination among Germanic peoples in antiquity is, 'So Tacitus very briefly and with no detail mentioned some divination thing he observed, which could conceivably have involved runes, but could just as easily not.'

    It's not nitpicking to correct inacurracies, I for one appreciate that but I would have appreciated your reply more if you had added something original to the discussion.
    That's okay; I don't post to please you.

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  2. #12
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    Re: Rune Casting Question

    Quote Originally Posted by Hildeburh View Post
    1. " I would not say a rune is a rune no matter how it lands" If it's not a rune what else is it? The rune is the inscribed symbol not the esoteric interpretation or the medium on which it is inscribed; ergo no such thing as a blank rune and a rune is always a rune.
    I am not sure if you misunderstood what Aethiriel wrote, or are deliberately using a straw man argument.

    It seems clear to me that Aethiriel did not mean that the way a rune lands could cause it to be something other than a rune, but rather that the way a rune lands could cause it to be a different rune (ie have a different meaning.) Aethiriel, please correct me if I'm wrong.

    Hildeburh, you've stated clearly that a rune's orientation does not influence its meaning in the system that you use. However, this is not true of every system of rune divination.

    Also, historical provenance has no bearing on whether a divination system works, nor on whether it should be used. Customs evolve, and so do technologies; I don't see why divination couldn't be open to new discoveries just like every other field of human knowledge.

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